discussion title:
UTI with Negative Culture?
I am 41, and had a UTI when I was 24. I haven't had one since then. I started having symptoms (feeling like you need to pee all the time, but when you try only a tablespoon of urine passes; achy bladder, smelly urine, tingling after urination...the same symptoms as the other UTI I had before.) Because it was a holiday week end, and I was not at home, I went to an urgent care center. They said my dip stick showed no infection, but they would give me antibiotics and send for a culture. The doctor told me that based on my symptoms, usually "1 +1=2." He did suggest that I try drinking a lot of water, and if I didn't feel better the next day, start the meds. (I should say that in general, I drink at least 8x8 oz galsses of water a day.)
I started the meds (Trimethoprin -Sulfameth -something) and the first 24-36 hours I felt better. But I started feeling the strong urge to urinate and burining again, usually moreso after I would take my meds. I called my OB/Gyn's office and the nurse told me to continue with the meds for the full 5 days, and gave me a prescription for Pyridium (a blessing!). So I took the meds to completion, and felt better (although not 100%) for about 48 hours. Now my symptoms appear to be back with a vengeance.
I called the Urgent Care place for the result of my culture and it took like a week to get results, because they didn't send it out until two days after my visit. They said the culture was negative - but honestly I don't know that I 100% trust this place. When I put my sample in the little cupboard, there was another one still in there...that the nurse was totally unaware of. Since I got there right when they opened, it had to have been from the previous day.
So my questions:
Is it possible that I've messed myself up by taking anti-biotics when I didn't have a UTI? Or could I have a UTI in spite of the negative culture?